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I get a little lost in the sauce when I get typing. I stand by most of what I said, but maybe some isn’t pertinent.
Let me try and be super clear. In my sample women are more horny than men. In yours it is the other way.
Giving examples of men being outwardly sexual doesn’t prove that they feel it more. Just because more businesses cater to men doesn’t mean they feel it more. You are giving very surface level and indirect proof and calling it evidence.
I’m not working in abstract land, just not your land I guess.
Edit: I checked, the argument is about your evidence being mid. That’s been my position from the start. I don’t even agree that men and women are equally horny, but I don’t think you disproved it with strip clubs.
What if women’s sexuality is felt differently, and porn isn’t a perfect fit?
Here is how you sound: Do you know much about smut novels? Women must be much more horny given that they buy way more of those than guys do. No reason guys would buy less other than being less horny.